find it ironic the outcry about the recent U.S. Supreme Court decision about free speech expenditures. You may note that most of the letters concern “corporations being able to freely influence elections.” Notably absent is that this also applies to unions. I guess this is acceptable but those pesky corporations should not be allowed.
I am curious why this omission is so widespread? Corporations have accountability to the shareholder. What do unions have accountability for? It’s certainly not the people they represent, or else “card check” would be off the table.
Don Thompson
Lake Stevens
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